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What are three required commands when you enable source-specific multicast for addresses in the range 184.108.40.206/8? (Choose three.)
A. ip multicast-routing
B. ip igmp version 3
C. ip pim ssm-range 220.127.116.11/8
D. ip igmp version 2
E. ip pim ssm-range default
F. set routing-options multicast ssm-groups 18.104.22.168/8
A. Co-operative key servers are configured.
B. Redundant peers are configured.
C. The key server uses multicast mode to propagate rekey messages.
D. PSK authentication is configured.
Which option is the origin code when a route is redistributed into BGP?
Which packet does a router receive if it receives an OSPF type 4 packet?
A. hello packet
B. database descriptor packet
C. link state update packet
D. link state request packet
E. link state acknowledge packet
A. IP source guard is configured on the switch port.
B. The DHCP server pool addresses are configured incorrectly.
C. DHCP requests are being blocked.
D. DHCP option 150 is disabled.
Which three statements about DMVPN are true? (Choose three.)
A. It facilitates zero-touch configuration for addition of new spokes.
B. It supports dynamically addressed spokes using DHCP.
C. It features automatic IPsec triggering for building an IPsec tunnel.
D. It requires uses of IPsec to build the DMVPN cloud.
E. Spokes can build tunnels to other spokes and exchange traffic directly.
F. It supports server load balancing on the spokes.
Which two options are disadvantages of a commingled dual-tier WAN rate-based Ethernet circuit? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the maintenance of separate chassis.
B. It has limited scalability.
C. It requires additional CPU resources at the subscriber end.
D. It is more difficult to secure.
E. It can increase the likelihood of packet drops.
When the BGP additional-paths feature is used, what allows a BGP speaker to differentiate between the different available paths?
A. The remote BGP peer prepends its own next-hop address to the prefix.
B. A unique path identifier is encoded into a dedicated field to the NLRI.
C. A route distinguisher is appended to the prefix by the receiving BGP speaker.
D. The additional path information is encoded in an extended community.
Which two improvements do SIA-Query and SIA-Reply messages add to EIGRP? (Choose two.)
A. Stuck-in-active conditions are solved faster.
B. They prevent a route from going into the stuck-in-active state.
C. They help in the localization of the real failure in the network.
D. The EIGRP adjacency between two neighbors never goes down.
In which way does the Bridge Assurance mechanism modify the default spanning-tree behavior in an effort to prevent bridging loops?
A. Received BPDUs are looped back toward the sender to ensure that the link is bidirectional.
B. If BPDUs are no longer received on a port, the switch immediately sends out a TCN BPDU.
C. Extended topology information is encoded into all BPDUs.
D. BPDUs are sent bidirectional on all active network ports, including blocked and alternate ports.
When you enable the MPLS Multi-VRF feature, which two supported routing protocols can be used to exchange routing information between PE routers and CE routers? (Choose two.)
A. Create a default route for site A on PE-1 with the next hop set to the PE-2 interface to the Internet.
B. Originate a default route in site B with the next hop set to the PE-2 Internet interface, and import the default route into site A.
C. Create a default route on CE-1 with the next hop set to the PE-1 upstream interface.
D. Originate a default route in site A with the next hop set to the PE-2 interface to CE-1.
E. Create a static default route on CE-1 with the next hop set to the PE-2 interface to the Internet.
Which statement about OSPF loop prevention is true?
A. The discard route is generated automatically on the ABR to prevent routing loops.
B. The ASBR uses type 3 LSAs from non-backbone areas to prevent control-plane routing loops.
C. The ABR can filter type 3 LSPs to prevent routing loops.
D. The DN bit ignores LSA types 2, 3, and 5 to prevent routing loops.
Which map is locally defined?
What is the VLAN ID range of VLANs that are eligible for pruning?
A. 2 through 1001
B. 1 through 1005
C. 1 through 4096
D. 2 through 1005
Which two statements about IS-IS wide metrics are true? (Choose two.)
A. The wide metric is a 24-bit field.
B. The maximum link metric is 16777215.
C. R3 and R4 periodically advertise PNSP messages to synchronize the IS-IS database.
D. IS-IS devices that are enabled with wide metrics can become neighbors with a device that uses standard metrics.
E. The maximum link metric is 4261412864.
F. The maximum path metric is 16777215.
Which two statements about Metro Ethernet services are true? (Choose two.)
A. EPL is a point-to-point service from one customer site to another across an MPLS backbone.
B. EVPL is a multipoint service that emulates a LAN over an MPLS backbone.
C. EPLAN is a multipoint service that emulates a LAN over an MPLS backbone.
D. EVPL is a point-to-point service from one customer site to another across an MPLS backbone.
E. ELAN is a point-to-point service from one customer site to another across an MPLS backbone.
F. EVPL is a multipoint service with a root node that is suitable for multicast services.
RIPv2 is enabled on a router interface. The “neighbor” command is also configured with a specific IP address. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?
A. RIP stops sending multicast packets on that interface.
B. RIP starts sending only unicast packets on that interface.
C. RIP starts ignoring multicast packets on that interface.
D. RIP starts sending unicast packets to the specified neighbor, in addition to multicast packets.
When you implement CoPP on your network, what is its default action?
A. permit all traffic
B. rate-limit bidirectional traffic to the control plane
C. drop management ingress traffic to the control plane
D. monitor ingress and egress traffic to the control plane by using access groups that are applied to the interface
E. block all traffic
Which two statements about IPv4 and IPv6 networks are true? (Choose two.)
A. In IPv6, hosts perform fragmentation.
B. IPv6 uses a UDP checksum to verify packet integrity.
C. In IPv6, routers perform fragmentation.
D. In IPv4, fragmentation is performed by the source of the packet.
E. IPv4 uses an optional checksum at the transport layer.
F. IPv6 uses a required checksum at the network layer.
What are two benefits of NVI? (Choose two.)
A. It provides scalability by maintaining a NAT table on every interface.
B. It can dynamically create a static route to the NAT pool for translation.
C. It supports the use of route maps for policy-based NAT.
D. It supports the use of a single interface for translations.
E. It injects a route into the existing routing protocol that directs translation to the NAT pool.
Which two BGP attributes are optional, non-transitive attributes? (Choose two.)
A. AS path
B. local preference
E. cluster list
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