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QUESTION 21
Which three options are actions to realize the benefits? (Choose three.)

A.    Progress should be measured once the solution is deployed.
B.    Should take into account the relationship with the stakeholder.
C.    Should focus on measurable results.
D.    May be based on assumptions and risks.
E.    Include actions on the way, plus those already identified.

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 22
Which three options are stages of the Benefit Realization Management? (Choose three.)

A.    Benefits accounting.
B.    Benefits identification.
C.    Benefits roles.
D.    Benefit measurement, ranking and prioritization.
E.    Benefits monitoring and review.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 23
Which of the following describes a Viewpoint?

A.    A perspective expressed by one or more managers who share the same or similar role.
B.    A perspective expressed by one or more customers who may or may not share the same or similar role.
C.    The perspective or related set of concerns experienced by a group of stakeholders.
D.    An informal summary of project outcomes used in the management reporting and decision making process.

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
How might an understanding of business and technology dependencies assist in the development of a phased implementation roadmap?

A.    By enabling the creation of a risk mitigation plan to mitigate or reduce risk.
B.    By determining the level of technical and business support needed to implement each roadmap component.
C.    By helping to determine the most effective order in which each technology component should be implemented.
D.    By focusing the Solution Architect onto the most mission-critical aspects of the solution first.

Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which three options are financial challenges when determining the financial value of a Cisco solution? (Choose three.)

A.    Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
B.    Long term and cycles for deployment and adoption.
C.    Cost efficiencies and reductions.
D.    Difficulty to determine NPV.
E.    Increase revenue and margins.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 26
Which option is the best description for NPV?

A.    The adoption of licensed third-party solutions and services may result in a lower NPV.
B.    The NPV takes into consideration the direct and indirect costs of maintaining technology solutions and services.
C.    NPV is factored into the ROI calculation.
D.    The opportunity to reduce NPV is a measureable business outcome and benefit to the customer business.
E.    The NPV of technology solutions and services indicates the monetary value that those solutions bring to the business.

Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which two options are direct financial benefits of the outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)

A.    Increased NPV.
B.    Lower project costs.
C.    Process efficiencies.
D.    Faster time to market for new solutions.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
Which two options are indirect financial benefits of the outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)

A.    Increased NPV.
B.    Lower project costs.
C.    Process efficiencies.
D.    Faster time to market for new solutions.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 29
Which two options are true regarding chargeback and showback? (Choose two.)

A.    Chargeback is an internal billing mechanism where departments directly pay for their consumption of IT services.
B.    Showback is an internal billing mechanism where departments directly pay for their consumption of IT services.
C.    Chargeback provides departments with visibility to their consumption of IT services but do not directly pay for the services.
D.    Showback provides departments with visibility to their consumption of IT services but do not directly pay for the services.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
What is the purpose of the Solution Business Impact Index?

A.    It is a number that identifies how sooner in the implementation roadmap should the benefits appear.
B.    It is a matrix that lists the solutions and business priorities of the customer, and ranks the solutions according to the impact they generate.
C.    It is a chart to display the importance of Cisco technologies.
D.    It is an alternative to the business outcome-based sales approach.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
Which deployment model is the best solution for a simple installation with the most secure connection outside the production network forCisco Meeting Server?

A.    Scaled and Resilient Server Deployment
B.    Single Split Server Deployment
C.    Single Combined Server Deployment
D.    Scaled and Combined Server Deployment

Answer: C

QUESTION 22
How is TIP defined?

A.    TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in calls between any H.323 and SIP endpoint. Whether they are immersive endpoints or non- immersive endpoints.
B.    TIP allows communication between any immersive and non-immersive endpoint.
C.    TIP allows communication between any endpoint, regardless of what protocol is used
D.    TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in cars between immersive endpoints.

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which statement is true regarding TMS permissions?

A.    TMS Permissions are assigned to groups, and users are added to the groups.
B.    TMS Permissions are directly assigned to individual users.
C.    TMS Permissions are configured in Active Directory, which is then synched to TMS.
D.    TMS Permissions can be imported from the Expressway or CUCM.

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which statement is true about APIs and SDKs?

A.    SDKs specify how software components should interact
B.    APIs consist of a set of SDKs, sample code, technical notes, and debugging facilities.
C.    SDKs can be used without APIs.
D.    APIs can be used without SDKs.

Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which type of API is used to configure settings on Cisco Meeting Server?

A.    REST
B.    XML-RPC
C.    SOAP
D.    XMP-RPC

Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which is a protocol used in the H.323 standard?

A.    802.1
B.    SIP
C.    Q.931
D.    SDP

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/H-323/configuration/15-mt/voi-h323-overview.html#GUID-8130E479-580A-4450-91EA-A1CDCE96548A

QUESTION 27
What is a function of a call control solution?

A.    To make, monitor and maintain calls
B.    To provide an audio and video interface for the user
C.    To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
D.    To schedule calls

Answer: A

QUESTION 28
What do Enterprise Settingson Cisco Spark determine?

A.    Where user information comes from.
B.    BOT integration
C.    API integration
D.    How Connectors are integrated in a hybrid deployment.

Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which management solution works with endpointsregistered to UCM, VCS and Expressway?

A.    Prime
B.    CMA
C.    CMR
D.    TMS

Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?

A.    TelePresence Server
B.    Spark
C.    Cisco Meeting Server
D.    Cisco WebEx

Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
Which two attacks target the data link layer in a switched environment? (Choose two.)

A.    VLAN attacks
B.    IP source routing
C.    MAC address floods
D.    DHCP-based IP redirection attacks
E.    Spanning-tree attacks

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QUESTION 61
Which three of the following tasks can be performed using Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool? (Choose three.)

A.    collect trace files
B.    stop and start Cisco Unified CCX services
C.    view syslog messages
D.    perform backup and restore functions
E.    monitor the health of the Cisco Unified CCX system

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QUESTION 21
What IOS commands display MPLS label mapping on an LSR?

A.    Show mpls ldp parameters
B.    Show mpls ldp bindings
C.    Show mpls forwading-table
D.    Show mpls ldp discovery
E.    Show mpls ldp neighbor detail

Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Drag and Drop Questions

221

Answer:

222

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. The vrf MAINT has been provisioned and used by the Service Provider management network. The engineer discovers that syslog messages are not being received on the syslog server. IP reachability has been validated using ping.
Which issue in the configuration must be corrected?

231

A.    logging on must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
B.    logging host must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
C.    The logging facility must be configured for syslog processing.
D.    The route targets that are configured do not match the route distinguisher.

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2sr/12_2sra/feature/guide/srvrfslg.html#wp1059076

QUESTION 24
Which are the three header fields that affect how Equal-Cost Multipath hashes traffic flow into interface groups? (Choose three.)

A.    source MAC address
B.    source port
C.    source IP address
D.    destination IP address
E.    IP protocol ID
F.    destination MAC address

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 25
An R1 router requires an equal load balancing to reach the prefix 192.168.0.0/16 over two exit points: through R2 and R3 routers. Which two options must be configured on the R1 router to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)

A.    The BGP maximum path feature must be configured on R1.
B.    The BGP PIC core must be enabled on R1
C.    Weight, local-pref, MED, as-path length, origin, and the BGP next-hop IGP cost must be the same for the R2 and R3 IBGP updates to R1.
D.    The BGP Link Bandwidth feature must be applied on R1.
E.    BGP extended community exchange must be enabled between IBGP neighbors.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
BGP link-bandwidth is for unequal-cost routes.

QUESTION 26
A company is deciding between an HVR and SVR solution in order to finalize a virtualization project proposal. Which is an advantage of a HVR solution versus a SVR solution?

A.    A HVR solution implements dedicated data plane resources.
B.    A HVR solution implements shared control plane resources.
C.    A HVR solution introduces significant contention of resources.
D.    A HVR solution implements dedicated chassis resources.

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/collateral/ns341/ns524/ns562/ns573/white_paper_c11-512753_ns573_Networking_Solutions_White_Paper.html

QUESTION 27
Which three of these are optical channel data unit (ODU) overhead fields? (Choose three)

A.    general communication channel 0 (GCC0)
B.    section monitoring
C.    reserved (RES)
D.    general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1 GCC2)
E.    tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 28
Which three modes are the operating of HDLC? (Choose three)

A.    asynchronous balanced mode (ABM)
B.    normal response mode (NRM)
C.    normal peer mode (NPM)
D.    asynchronous client mode (ACM)
E.    asynchronous response mode (ARM)

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Asynchronous response mode is an HDLC addition[1] for use over full-duplex links. While retaining the primary/secondary distinction, it allows the secondary to transmit at any time. Asynchronous balanced mode added the concept of a combined terminal which can act as both a primary and a secondary. There are some subtleties about this mode of operation; while many features of the protocol do not care whether they are in a command or response frame, some do, and the address field of a received frame must be examined to determine whether it contains a command (the address received is ours) or a response (the address received is that of the other terminal).

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. A user is going through a series of dialing steps on a SIP Type B IP phone (for example, a Cisco 7975) to call an SCCP IP phone. Both phones are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. Assuming the calling SIP phone is associated with a SIP Dial Rule with a pattern value of 2001, which statement about the call setup process of this call is true?

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